I’m confused.

If the fed is artificially lifting the price of TIPs via open market operations… then can I still use in in my “weight of evidence” analysis of gold┬ámarket?


Can the fed actually create inflation by increasing the price of the TIPS? WTH !?!?!?

Edit: more confusion… I might be late to the dxy party.. but why is the USD going up while rates go down? The dirt laundry phenomenon? Milkshake theory?